The Father imposed His wrath due unto,
and the Son underwent punishment for, either:
Premise 1- All the sins of all men.
Premise 2- All the sins of some men (the elect), or
Premise 3- Some of the sins of all men.
b. That if the second premise is true, the Christ,
in their stead suffered for all the sins of all the elect
in the whole world, and this is the truth.
c. But if the first premise is true, why are not all men free from
the punishment due unto their sins?
You answer. Because of ‘unbelief’.
I ask, is this unbelief a sin, or is it not? If it is, then Christ
either suffered the punishment due unto it, or He did not.
If He did die for the sin of ‘unbelief’, why must that
hinder them more than their other sins for which He died?
If He did not die for their sin of ‘unbelief’,
then He did not die for all their sins!